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LOMA LINDA 2003 RECALLS
1.
Cardiac GRE, short axis view of heart on MRI, small mass isointense to
wall (adjacent to posterior wall of what appeared to be the left
ventricle)
a. Thrombus
b. Lipoma
c. Myxoma
d. Papillary muscle
2. man with massive hematemesis and is hypotensive. What do you do:
a. angio
b. endoscopy
3. spleen, most likely metastasis:
a. melanoma
b. renal cell
c. pancreatic ca
d. colon ca
4. Lady with cervical cancer had drop mets to ovaries, mimicking stage 3 cancer. Which cancers do not cause this:
a. metastatic breast
b. colon
c. gallbladder
d. renal
5. kid with precocious puberty;
a. hypothalamic hamartoma
6.
wrist with ulnar collateral tear, (describing gamekeepers thumb) is
imaged prior to getting surgery. Where does the mri show the displaced
UCL?
a. Under extensor pollicus longus
b. Under flexor pollicus longus
c. Under flexor retinaculum or aponeurosis
d. Under abductor pollucis longus
7. Which has same distribution as RA?
a. Gout
b. Reiters
c. P soriatic
d. CPPD
8. How does gout differ from rheumatoid arthritis
a. Erosions
b. Osteoporosis
c. Subchondral cysts
d. Soft tissue calcifications
9. peds, what is the most stable cervical spine fracture:
a. posterior arch of C1
b. through base of dens
10. what is the most common, most clinically significant abnormality while doing IVC filter placement:
a. retroarortic renal vein
b. circumaortic renal vein
c. duplicated ivc
d. left ivc
11. where does a left svc drain?
a. Coronary sinus
12. cardiac transplant: what is left behind in recipient?
a. Posterior wall of left atrium
13. dwarf man. Describe fused cervical spine at several levels. What is the cause?
a. achondroplasia
b. RA
c. Turners
d. Juvenile RA
e. Spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia
14. know lead time bias (which was the answer)
15. what are the 6 ACR subjects (on those discs?) that residents are supposed to receive education on? All are true except:
a. business management
b. patient care
c. systems based practice
16. what does not cause massive uptake in the liver on Tc99m pertechnetate:
a. alumina breakthrough
b. free pertechnetate
c. metastatic ovarian ca
17. ulnar impaction syndrome
18. late onset versus early onset IUGR: which is T or false
a. answer was you dont have HC:AC abnormality with late
b. placental insufficiency with early or late?
19. what causes chance fracture:
a. anterior distraction
b. posterior distraction
c. posterior compression
d. axial loading
20. all are increased transmission through the liver except:
a. fatty infiltration (answer
b. HCC
c. Abscess
21. what is best to differentiate mature cystic teratoma from regular ovarian neoplasm?
a. Increased echogenicity (answer)
22. 14 year old asian boy with massive hematemesis with gastric esophageal varices:
a. schistomiasis
23. midline facial cleft defect seen with :
a. holoprosencephaly
b. chiari ii
c. septo-optic dysplasia
24. schizenphaly cleft is lined by gray matter.
25. mammo: know about phylloides tumor: what is true about it? Know about age, benign verus malignant.
26. What is most senstivive for cardiac viability?
a. Pet
27. delayed enhancement on a CT:
a. infarction
b. ischemia
c. stunned myocardiam
d. right ventricular dysplasia
28. doming of the aortic valve:
a. bicuspid aortic valve
29. what is true about venous malformations:
a. small at birth
b. decreases with growth
30. hypoperfusion syndrome: what is not hyperenhancing:
a. bowel wall
b. kidneys
c. ivc
d. pancreas
31. MUGA scanning: what is true:
a. Oversubtraction of the background increases the EF (true)
32. pulmonary edema only seen in the right upper lobe: what causes it?
a. mitral stenosis
b. mitral regur
c. aortic stenosis
d. aortic regur
e. tricuspic regur
33.what borders the rotator interval: supraspinatus and infraspinatus tendons
33. what tear is seen with intraarticular dislocation of the biceps tendon:
a. superior glenohumeral ligt
b. inferior glenohumeral ligt
c. supraspinatus tendon
d. subscapularis muscle
34. most common cause of lymphadenopathy in a 6-12 year old?
a. Lymphadenopathy
35. breast H and D curve: steepest curve
36. breast firing gun biopsy picture
37. diagram of the internal cerebral vein
38. what is associated with salpingitis: hydrosalpinx
39. 24 year old male with multiple scattered sclerotic densities and bilateral AVN:
a. corticosteroids
b. sickle cell anemia
40. Known cystic fibrosis: what is and isnt associated with it.
41. Known Downs: what is not associated with it: Hyperperistolitic pyloric stenosis
42. stomach shows 10 1-2 cm polyps in the stomach on UGI:
peutz jager hamartomas vs. familial polyposis syndr vs. other thingss
43. terminal bowel dilation is associated with lymphoma
44. something about what is true or false on pancreatic divisum: what is associated with it?
Something about the dorsal aspect draining the major fissure, something about stenosis of the minor fissure.
45. RUQ pain with intense focal uptake in the region of the gallbladder fossa:
a. Inflamed liver
b. Acute cholecystitis
46. What is sincalide:
a. Octreotide peptide of CCK
47. What ABx do you give before biliary duct drainage:
a. Ceftazodime
48. What is not an indication for Percutaneous tranhepatic biliary drainage?
a. Stones
49. after liver transplant, pt has bile duct thrombosis. What is the problem?
a. bile leak
b. portal vein thrombosis
c. hepatic artery thrombosis.
50. What is not seen with caudate lobe atrophy on us?
a. Caudate lobe atrophy (T)
b. Enlargement of Hepatic artery
51. What syndrome is associated with thymic carcinoid?
a. Carcinoid syndrome
b. SIADH
c. Cushings
d. Conns
52. What causes you to get carcinoid syndrome? (describe a man with Right heart valvular problems)
a. Bronchial carcinoid
b. Carcinoid with liver metastastasis
53. Where is the moderator band:
a. RA
b. RV
c. LA
d. LV
54. What is associated with compete tracheal rings?
a. Pulmonary sling
b. Double aortic arch
c. Right anterior arch
d. Right posterior arch
55. Most common primary cardiac tumor in an adult:
a. Myxoma
b. Lipoma
c. Sarcoma
d. Fibroma
e. Rhabdomyoma
56. Describes a kid with certain findings describing Sturge weber
57. man with hematuria and IVP shows collecting system mass. HU on noncontrast Ct is 75
a. acute blood clot
b. TCC
c. Fungus ball
d. Uric acid stone
58. 3 cm polypoid endometrial polyp which is low signal on both T1 and T2
a. leiomyoma
b. adnenomyosis
c. endometrial polyp
d. endometrial carcinoma
59. Which does not cause endometrial thickening?
a. Adenomyosis
b. Tamoxifen
c. Endometrial CA
d. Endometrial Ca
60. What is the most reliable US findings for adenomysosi:
a. Heteeogenous myometrium
61.
man with acute onset of LLQ pain with 2 cm mass next to desc colon with
fat density and thick soft tissue rim and fat stranding:
a. epiploid appendicitis
b. diverticulitis
62. what is true about appendicitis in an adult:
a. appendicoliths are seen in 30 % of radiographs
b. perforated appendix is seen with appendicoliths 50%
63. Cronkite Canada syndrome is associated with:
a. Ectodermal/nail problems
64. invasive ductal breast findings on MRI:
a. densly enhancing mass with irregular borders(correct answer)
b. speculated mass that enhances
c. heterogeneously enhancing mass
65. what is the most common coalition?
a. Calcaneonavicular and middle facet of the subtalar joint
66. which posterior part of the breast is not seen MLO?
a. Upper breast
b. Lower breast
c. Medial
d. Axiallary tail
67. Pt is post lumpectomy and XRT. What is true about mammo:
a. Recurrences usually occur before 2 years
b. Follow up mammos should be obtained q 6 months for 4 years
68. What is true regarding atypical ductal hyperplasia found on mammo:
a. Results associated with 5% cancer
69. area under ROC is associated with:
a. average between sensitivity and specificity
b. how well a test is for diagnosing a disease
70. HMPAO with cross diaschisis in the cerebellum is associated with:
a. Alzheimer
b. Grand mal seizures
c. Herpes
71. Something regarding what is involved with quality improvement:
a. Maximize improvement
b. Always listen to your patients (consumers)
72. What causes marked cardiomegaly in a newborn:
a. TOF
b. Ebsteins anomaly
c. VSD
d. ASD
73. What valve is associated with Ebsteins malformation;
a. Tricuspid
74. HMPAO findings in alzheimers dementia:
a. Decreased in parietal lobe
75. What do you not seen in the brain with intracranial hypotension?
a. Answer: hydrocephalus
76. 65 year old man with 2.5 cm mass that drops out in signal with out of phase imaging and has long history of hypertension:
a. adrenal adenoma and Conns syndrome
b. adrenal adenoma and Cushings
c. adrenal adnenoma (nonfunctional) with essential hypertension (true)
77. Most common tumor in the proximal small bowel;
a. Adenocarcinoma
b. Crohns
c. Lymphoma
78. Immediate post op have reversal of diastolic flow in a segmental renal artery;
a. Renal artery stenosis
b. Renal vein occlusion
c. ATN
79. What is the most common cause cause of a unilateral delayed persistent nephrogram?
a. ATN
b. Acute ureteral obstruction
80. What is associated with squamous calculous of the kidney?
a. TB
b. Malakoplakia
c. Analgesics
d. Infected Staghorn calculi
81. Car accident with an internal adducted hip:
a. Posterior hip dislocation
82. Regarding percutaneous lung biopsy, what is false;
a. Sensitivity of dx lung cancer is 90%
b. Seeding of the tract is common
c. Air embolus can be fatal
d. Pneumothorax can occur
83. Placing a pull away sheath, the patient has acute onset of bradycardia and hypoxia:
a. Pulmonary embolus
b. Air embolus
c. Vasovagal
84. What is false regarding achondroplasia:
a. Trident hands
b. Mesomelic
c. Spinal stenosis
85. Know about I-123 : (true or false)
a. Something about discordant nodules, whether or not it was expensive, IV injection
86. When you tag RBC with technicium, what is it tagged onto?
a. Alpha unit of hemoglobin
b. Beta unit
c. RBC membrane
d. nonspecific in the cytoplasma
87. What is the blood supply to the hippocampus?
a. Anterior choridals
b. Posterior communicating artery
88. What is blue toe syndrome caused by?
a. Atheroemboli
b. Multiple segmental stenosis and occlusions
89. Male with slipped capital femoral epiphysis. What is not a predisposing factor:
a. Growth hormone therapy
b. Renal osteodystrophy
90. Kerly B lines and pulmonary edema are not seen with;
a. Tetralogy of Fallot
b. Transposition of the Great Vessels
c. Ebstein's Anomalyh
91. Cervical mediastinoscopy is least able to assess which nodes?
a. Anterior subcarinal
b. Precarinal
c. Right paratracheal
d. Prevascular
92. Man with acute onset of severe flu like illness with massive mediastinal lymphadenopathy.
a. Lymphoma
b. Silicoproteinosis
c. Inhalational anthrax
93. Which is not associated with pulmonary arterial hypertension?
a. Pulmonary arterovenous malformation AVM (answer)
94. True or false regarding ultrasound of the rotator cuff?
a. The tendons have poor blood supply
b. Able to well differentiate between partial tears and tendinopathy
c. Tendons are anisotropic
95. Pregnant female with parietal cortical and subcortical T2 lengthening on MR.
a. Posterior reversible encephalopathy (PRESS) is the answer
96.
patient is status post chemotherapy and XRT who develops mental status
changes and MRI of the head shows all these areas of T2 lengthening?
a. Disseminated necrotic encephalopathy (?)
97.
88 y/o F status post fall . AP and lat radiographs are negative. She is
still unable to bear weight on the affected side. What is the next best
test?
a. Nuc bone scan
b. MRI pelvis
c. CT pelvis
98. 5 year old female with diurnal enuresis. What is the best first test to eval?
a. VCUG
b. IVP
c. RENAL ultrasound
d. Helical CT
99.
Pt with SAH, status post A comm. Aneurysm clipping . 7 days latera pt
is less responsive and has bilateral lower extremity weakness. Reason?
a. Vasospasm
b. Rehemorrhage
c. Hydrocephalus
100.
2 questions about mammography. What do you do if you see radial scar
and atypical ductal hyperplasia?....excisional biopsy!
101.
Status post biopsy with specimen radiograph showing calcifications but
pathlogy comes back no calcifications, just fibrous tissue. What is the
next step?
a. Ask the pathologist to do bifringent polarizing light microscopy (answer)
102.
Female with 1st screening mammography. Shows a 5 mm well circm. Mass
lesions without calcification. MAG views confirm No calcifications. US
is done which does not show a lesion. What BIRDADS?
a. Incomplete
b. Benign
c. Probably benign with 6 month followup
d. Suspicious
103.
23 y/o female with 2.0 cm simple cyst in ovary, incidentally seen on
helical CT. Cyst is totally simple (no calc, wall thick, internal
septations, etc.) what is the next step?
a. Do nothing
b. Surgery
c. Follow up in 4-6 weeks.
104. Ct of abdomen 10 minute delays are good for:
a. Cholangiocarcinoma (answer)
105. Regarding prostate cancer imaging. T or F?
a. On MRI, cancer is T2 hyperintense?
b. On u/s, all hypoechoic lesions are cancer?
c. Something about psa of cancer lesions is higher than lesions of bph (answer)
106. Pagets disease of the breast=DCIS 107. infant with hypoxic-ischemic injury. Changes on MRI are called:
a. watershed infarct
b. periventricular leukoencephalopathy
108.
Question regarding the facial nerve: patient has paralysis of the the
muscle of facial expression but has intact taste on the anterior 2/3 of
the tongue. Where is the lesion?
a. CPA
b. Pons
c. Petrous apex
d. Internal acoustic canal
109. Which is a branch of the anterior division of the internal iliac artery?
a. Uterine a (answer)
b. Iliolumbar
c. Gonadal artery
110. Regarding varicoceles: What is false?
a. More common on the right (answer)
111. Regarding angiography. True or false:
a. PVA or absolute ethanol is ok for bronchial artery embolization?
112. Breast diagram with lesion below nipple on MLO view and in the medial half on CC view. Where is the lesion?
a. Lower inner (answer)
b. Lower outer
c. Upper inner
d. Upper outer
113. What is true regarding orbital anatomy?
a. Annulus of Zin divides the anterior and posterior quadrants
b. Ophthalmic artery lies under the vein (true)
c. Lateral rectus supplies the inferior oblique
114. True regardings acquired renal cystic disease?
a. All cysts are greater than 0.5 cm
b. It is unilateral disease
c. Risk of development increases with duration of renal failure (answer)
115. Which modality is best for detecting Ashermans disease (intrauterine synchiae)
a. Hysterosalpingography (answer)
b. MRI
c. CT
d. US
116. Most common reason why a 30 year old should get a MR arthrogram?
a. Rotator cuff tear
b. Impingement syndr
117. What is the blood supply to the hippocampus?
118. What is false regarding physiologic periosteal reaction?
a. It can be interrupted
b. It is characteristically symmetric
c. It can have a laminated appearance
119. What is most characteristic of malignant breast calcifications;
a. Sectional
b. Regional
c. Layered
d. Diffuse
120. A elderly female has a mammogram which demonstrates diffusely increased density of both breasts.
a. Inflammatory breast Ca (Answer)
121.
A 56 year old female with a unilateral dense breast on mammography. On
CXR she has cardiomegaly and prominent brachiocephalic vessels. What is
the cause?
a. CHF
b. SVC occlusion/syndrome
c. Inflammatory cancer
122. What is not seen with chronic torsion?
a. Increased peritesticular flow
b. Hydrocele
c. Microlithiasis (answer)
123. Umbilical cord is made up of:
a. Two arteries and one vein
b. One vein and two arteries
c. One of each
124. Stuck twin is seen with;
a. Diamniotic, monochorionic pregnancy (answer)
b. Diamniotic, dichorionic c. Etc.
125.
Describe a person with chronic renal failure requiring dialysis. He has
severe bone pain and osteomalacia without periosteal reaction?
a. Aluminum toxicity
b. Tertiary hyperparathyroidism
126.
Which of the following is associated with subperiosteal bone resorption
and something else
..answer was hyperparathyroidism.
127. What is the relationship of the pulmonary artery to the aorta:
a. Superior, anterior, and to the left
128. regarding PET. Just know that small cell cancer has very low uptake.
129. man with polyostotic fibrous dysplasia. He has a mass in his buttock with low T1 and high T2. answer?
a. Intramuscular myxoma
130. which cancer is least likely to metastasize to the lungs?
a. Testicular cancer
b. Renal cell
c. Prostate (answer)
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